Let f(x)=ax^3+bx^2+cx+41 be such that f(1)=40, f’(1)=2 and f’’(1)=4. Then a^2+b^2+c^2 is equal to

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f(x) = ax^3+ bx^2+ cx + 41 be such that f (1) = 40, f'(1) = 2 andf"(1) = 4. Then a^2+ b^2 + c^2 is

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Let \(f(x)=a x^3+b x^2+c x+41\) be such that \(f(1)=40, f^{\prime}(1)=2\) and \(f^{\prime \prime....

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