Let f:R to R defined by f(x)=(x^2)sin(pi/x^2) when x is not equal to 0 and f(x)=0 when x=0

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Let f:R to R defined by f(x)=(x^2)sin(pi/x^2) when x is not equal to 0 and f(x)=0 when x=0

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can we have sin(i)?