If the Boolean expression (p⊕q)∧(∼p⊙q) is equivalent to p∧q, where ⊕,⊙ϵ{∧,∨}...I Doubtify JEE

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Let ∗,□∈{∧,∨} be such that the Boolean expression (p∗∼q)⇒(p□q) is a tautology...I Doubtify JEE Let ∗,□∈{∧,∨} be such that the Boolean expression (p∗∼q)⇒(p□q) is a tautology...I Doubtify JEE